27 year old male who identifies as bisexual was recently with a new partner who is a gay male engaging in oral sex. The patient wrote into our online platform relaying that he had c/o swollen tonsils/sore throat and dysuria x 4 days. No penile discharge. No fever, cough or swollen cervical lymph nodes. Had a UA and urine culture with 0 wbc/hpf and completely normal culture as well as urine gc/ct naat. Also negative HIV and RPR. I ordered a throat swab for strep throat and gc/ct but it was not done as he went directly from online messaging to the lab and not to a clinic.
Given the risk, I was planning to offer 2g azithromycin as empiric tx given the risk despite negative UA and urine gc/ct
Would you agree with this plan or send to clinic for further testing (pharyngeal swab, urethral swab)?